Thursday, February 27, 2014

How is Theft Qualified? What are its Elements? How does the Penalty Differ?



Many commit theft, but a few get prosecuted, or apprehended. Or conversely, maybe many commit theft, because too few get prosecuted, much less sent to jail. In most instances, if the perpetrator is at all identified, victims tire out and withdraw the complaint, or simply lose interest and stop attending the mandatory Preliminary Investigation, thus, causing the dismissal of the case.


In yet other instances, while victims are able to identify the perpetrator, the latter, strangely, always seem to outrun the authorities, and before the latter could warm up, the former could be hundreds of miles away in one of the thousands of islands in the Philippines—enjoying his loot on the beach—or he could go real big, if he knows the drill, and fly out of the country, never to return again.


That’s not even to mention that even if the thief is caught, or is daring enough to stand trial on plea of not guilty, he has all in the law and the Constitution in his favor. For one, the quantum of proof in a criminal case, which theft is, is guilt beyond reasonable doubt or moral certainty. What does this mean? This means that a thief need only create a doubt to escape culpability or prison, since no one can be convicted on even the most tenuous of doubts. If he has been in the business long enough and has amassed enough, he could get himself a good lawyer to even more stack the odds in his favor.


Also, let us consider that the latter half of the enumeration of bill of rights, all of it, under Article Three of the 1987 Constitution pertains to the rights of the accused. These rights are designed to limit the power of the State, and thus, stretch the chances of the accused to escape even prosecution. You see, a thief is one pampered son of a bitch!

However, a warning to the thieves: downplay it at your own risk. Despite these facts, Theft is a very serious felony, which conviction can easily get you 6 years to ten years of jail time. And when committed with any of the circumstances cited under Art. 310 of the Revised Penal Code (RPC)—making it Qualified—you could easily raise the stakes to the possibility of spending a lifetime in prison, depending on your age.

Qualified Theft carries a prescribed penalty of two degrees higher than that prescribed and imposed on simple theft under Art. 308, RPC. Given that, it is easy to get reclusion perpetua or maximum imprisonment under the RPC.

Let us talk about Qualified Theft—its nature and penalty—as discussed in the Court’s decision in one case. To read the case click here.

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The facts as charged in the information. 
 

That in or about and during the period comprised between April 28, 1998 and May 2, 2002, inclusive, in the City of Manila, Philippines, the said accused, did then and there wilfully, unlawfully and feloniously, with intent of gain and without the knowledge and consent of the owner thereof, take, steal and carry away the total amount of P797,187.85 belonging to VIDEO CITY COMMERCIAL, INC. and VIVA VIDEOCITY, INC. represented by MIGUEL Q. SAMILLANO, in the following manner, to wit: by making herself the payee in forty-two pre-signed BPI Family Bank checks in the account of Video City Commercial and Jefferson Tan (the latter as franchise[e]) and encashing said checks in the total amount of P797,187.85, for her personal benefit, to the damage and prejudice of said owner in the aforesaid amount of P797,187.85, Philippine Currency.

That the said accused acted with grave abuse of confidence, she being then employed as bookkeeper in the aforesaid firm and as such was privy to the financial records and checks belonging to complainant and was actually entrusted with the said financial records, documents and checks and their transactions thereof in behalf of complainant.3

Upon arraignment, petitioner pleaded not guilty. Trial thereafter ensued.
Summarily, the prosecution proved the following facts: Video City Commercial, Inc. (VCCI) and Viva Video City, Inc. (Viva) were sister companies which managed a chain of stores known as Video City. These stores, some company-owned while others were operated in joint ventures with franchisees, were engaged in the sale and rental of video-related merchandises. During the period of April 28, 1998 to May 2, 2002, petitioner was the accounting clerk and bookkeeper of VCCI and Viva. One of her duties was to disburse checks for the accounts she handled. She was assigned to handle twelve (12) Video City store franchise accounts, including those of Tommy Uy, Wilma Cheng, Jefferson Tan and Sharon Cuneta. As regards the franchisee Jefferson Tan, who was out of the country most of the time, Tan pre-signed checks to cover the store’s disbursements and entrusted them to petitioner. The pre-signed checks by Jefferson Tan were from a current account maintained jointly by VCCI and Jefferson Tan at BPI Family Bank, Sta. Mesa. There was also an existing agreement with the bank that any disbursement not exceeding P20,000.00 would require only Tan’s signature.4
Convicted by the RTC, and affirmed by CA, Accused filed a petition for review on Certiorari under Rule 45 raising the following issues:
  1. WHETHER OR NOT THE ACCUSED IS GUILTY BEYOND REASONABLE DOUBT OF THE CRIME OF QUALIFIED THEFT.
1-a. WHETHER THE PHRASE “X X X SHALL TAKE THE PERSONAL PROPERTY OF ANOTHER WITHOUT THE LATTER'S CONSENT X X X” IN ARTICLE 308 OF THE REVISED PENAL CODE IN RELATION TO ARTICLE 310 OF THE SAME CODE WOULD REQUIRE AS AN ELEMENT OF “QUALIFIED THEFT” AN ESTABLISHED PROOF OF “OWNERSHIP” OF THE PROPERTY ALLEGEDLY STOLEN?
1-b. WHETHER IT IS IMPERATIVE THAT THE DUE EXECUTION AND AUTHENTICITY OF THE ALLEGED SIGNATURES OF THE ACCUSED IN THE CHECKS BE FULLY ESTABLISHED AND IDENTIFIED AND IF NOT SO ESTABLISHED AND IDENTIFIED, THE SAME WOULD BE A FATAL FLAW IN THE EVIDENCE OF THE PROSECUTION WHICH INEVITABLY WOULD LEAD TO ACCUSED’S ACQUITTAL?
1-c. WHETHER THE FAILURE TO ESTABLISH AND AUTHENTICATE OR IDENTIFY THE SIGNATURES OF THE ACCUSED ANNIE MIRANDA AND JEFFERSON TAN CONSTITUTED A FATAL FLAW IN PROVING THAT THE ACCUSED AND JEFFERSON TAN WERE THE AUTHORS OF SAID SIGNATURES?
1-d. [WHETHER THE] CONCLUSION OF FACTS BY THE REGIONAL TRIAL COURT AND COURT OF APPEALS ARE NOT SUPPORTED BY EVIDENCE.
1-e. WHETHER THE CHECKS AND VOUCHERS PRESENTED AS EVIDENCE NOT IN THEIR ORIGINALS SHOULD HAVE BEEN DENIED ADMISSION BY THE COURT A QUO, THERE BEING NO SUFFICIENT FACTS ADDUCED TO JUSTIFY THE PRESENTATION OF XEROX COPIES OR SECONDARY EVIDENCE.8 
           Essentially, the issue for our resolution is whether the CA correctly affirmed petitioner’s conviction for qualified theft.
Petitioner insists that she should not have been convicted of qualified theft as the prosecution failed to prove the private complainant’s absolute ownership of the thing stolen. Further, she maintains that Jefferson Tan’s signatures on the checks were not identified by any witness who is familiar with his signature. She likewise stresses that the checks and vouchers presented by the prosecution were not original copies and that no secondary evidence was presented in lieu of the former.
The Court held:
The appeal lacks merit.
A careful review of the records of this case and the parties’ submissions leads the Court to conclude that there exists no cogent reason to disturb the decision of the CA. We note that the arguments raised by petitioner in her petition are a mere rehash of her arguments raised before, and correctly resolved by, the CA.
The elements of the crime of theft as provided for in Article 3089 of the Revised Penal Code are as follows: (1) that there be taking of personal property; (2) that said property belongs to another; (3) that the taking be done with intent to gain; (4) that the taking be done without the consent of the owner; and (5) that the taking be accomplished without the use of violence against or intimidation of persons or force upon things.10 Theft becomes qualified when any of the following circumstances under Article 31011 is present: (1) the theft is committed by a domestic servant; (2) the theft is committed with grave abuse of confidence; (3) the property stolen is either a motor vehicle, mail matter or large cattle; (4) the property stolen consists of coconuts taken from the premises of a plantation; (5) the property stolen is fish taken from a fishpond or fishery; and (6) the property was taken on the occasion of fire, earthquake, typhoon, volcanic eruption, or any other calamity, vehicular accident or civil disturbance.12
Here, the prosecution was able to prove beyond reasonable doubt that the amount of P797,187.85 taken does not belong to petitioner but to VCCI and that petitioner took it without VCCI’s consent and with grave abuse of confidence by taking advantage of her position as accountant and bookkeeper. The prosecution’s evidence proved that petitioner was entrusted with checks payable to VCCI or Viva by virtue of her position as accountant and bookkeeper. She deposited the said checks to the joint account maintained by VCCI and Jefferson Tan, then withdrew a total of P797,187.85 from said joint account using the pre-signed checks, with her as the payee. In other words, the bank account was merely the instrument through which petitioner stole from her employer VCCI.
We find no cogent reason to disturb the above findings of the trial court which were affirmed by the CA and fully supported by the evidence on record. Time and again, the Court has held that the facts found by the trial court, as affirmed in toto by the CA, are as a general rule, conclusive upon this Court13 in the absence of any showing of grave abuse of discretion. In this case, none of the exceptions to the general rule on conclusiveness of said findings of facts are applicable.14 The Court gives weight and respect to the trial court’s findings in criminal prosecution because the latter is in a better position to decide the question, having heard the witnesses in person and observed their deportment and manner of testifying during the trial.15 Absent any showing that the lower courts overlooked substantial facts and circumstances, which if considered, would change the result of the case, this Court gives deference to the trial court’s appreciation of the facts and of the credibility of witnesses.

Does the Complainant need to be the owner of the personal property stolen?
Moreover, we agree with the CA when it gave short shrift to petitioner’s argument that full ownership of the thing stolen needed to be established first before she could be convicted of qualified theft. As correctly held by the CA, the subject of the crime of theft is any personal property belonging to another. Hence, as long as the property taken does not belong to the accused who has a valid claim thereover, it is immaterial whether said offender stole it from the owner, a mere possessor, or even a thief of the property.16 In any event, as stated above, the factual findings of the courts a quo as to the ownership of the amount petitioner stole is conclusive upon this Court, the finding being adequately supported by the evidence on record.
However, notwithstanding the correctness of the finding of petitioner’s guilt, a modification is called for as regards the imposable penalty. On the imposition of the correct penalty, People v. Mercado17 is instructive. Pursuant to said case, in the determination of the penalty for qualified theft, note is taken of the value of the property stolen, which is P797,187.85 in this case. Since the value exceeds P22,000.00, the basic penalty is prision mayor in its minimum and medium periods to be imposed in the maximum period, that is, eight (8) years, eight (8) months and one (1) day to ten (10) years of prision mayor.
To determine the additional years of imprisonment to be added to the basic penalty, the amount of P22,000.00 is deducted from P797,187.85, which yields a remainder of P775,187.85. This amount is then divided by P10,000.00, disregarding any amount less than P10,000.00. The end result is that 77 years should be added to the basic penalty. However, the total imposable penalty for simple theft should not exceed 20 years. Thus, had petitioner committed simple theft, the penalty would be 20 years of reclusion temporal. As the penalty for qualified theft is two degrees higher, the trial court, as well as the appellate court, should have imposed the penalty of reclusion perpetua.


Tuesday, February 25, 2014

Determination of Probable Cause for Filing of Information; Determination of Probable Cause for Issuance of Warrant of Arrest

BRIG. GEN. (Ret.) JOSE S. RAMISCAL, JR., vs. SANDIGANBAYAN (4th Division)  and PEOPLE OF THE PHILIPPINES, G.R. Nos. 169727-28, August 18, 2006

Read the case here.

Is the determination or finding of probable cause by the Ombudsman subject to review by the Sandiganbayan, or in the same breath, the finding of probable cause by a prosecutor (DOJ) subject to review by the trial court?
In issuing a warrant of arrest, does Sandiganbayan or a court need to conduct hearing for the purpose of determining the existence of probable cause to satisfy the constitutional requirement?
These questions, and others, are answered in this case.
Here, petitioner, accused of, in the informations filed against him, several counts of Estafa and equal counts of violation of section 3 (e) of the Anti- Graft  and Corrupt Practices Act or RA 3019, filed a Special Civil Action Petition for Certiorari under Rule 65 before the Supreme for alleged grave abuse of discretion amounting to lack or excess of jurisdiction against the Ombudsman and Sandiganbayan.

"The Ombudsman is empowered to determine, in the exercise of his discretion, whether probable cause exists, and to charge the person believed to have committed the crime as defined by law. Whether or not the Ombudsman has correctly discharged his function, i.e., whether or not he has made a correct assessment of the evidence of probable cause in a case, is a matter that the trial court may not be compelled to pass upon."

"We agree with the Sandiganbayan’s ruling that the Revised Rules of Criminal Procedure do not require cases to be set for hearing to determine probable cause for the issuance of a warrant for the arrest of the accused before any warrant may be issued."
Below is the Court's decision.
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On October 7, 2005, petitioner filed the instant petition for certiorari under Rule 65, praying that the said Resolution be nullified on the following grounds:
I. THE RESPONDENT COURT COMMITTED GRAVE ABUSE OF DISCRETION AMOUNTING TO LACK AND/OR EXCESS OF JURISDICTION IN SUSTAINING THE OMBUDSMAN’S FINDING OF PROBABLE CAUSE FOR THE COMMISSION OF ONE HUNDRED FORTY EIGHT (148) COUNTS OF ESTAFA THRU FALSIFICATION OF PUBLIC DOCUMENT AND ANOTHER ONE HUNDRED FORTY EIGHT (148) COUNTS OF VIOLATION OF REPUBLIC ACT NO. 3019 AND IN NOT DISMISSING THE INFORMATIONS.
 II. THE RESPONDENT COURT COMMITTED GRAVE ABUSE OF DISCRETION AMOUNTING TO LACK AND/OR EXCESS OF JURISDICTION IN NOT QUASHING THE INFORMATIONS AND IN NOT DISMISSING THE CASES NOTWITHSTANDING THAT IT HAD NO JURISDICTION OVER THE OFFENSE CHARGED IN THE INFORMATION.
 III. THE RESPONDENT COURT COMMITTED GRAVE ABUSE OF DISCRETION AMOUNTING TO LACK AND/OR EXCESS OF JURISDICTION IN NOT QUASHING THE INFORMATION IN CRIMINAL CASE NO. 28023 (ESTAFA THROUGH FALSIFICATION), NOTWITHSTANDING THAT THE FACTS CHARGED THEREIN WERE AN ESSENTIAL PART OF ONE CONTINUING CRIME OF ESTAFA SEPARATELY CHARGED IN CRIMINAL CASES NOS. 28021, 28025, 28027 AND 28029, PENDING IN THE THIRD, FIRST, FIFTH AND SECOND DIVISIONS OF THE SANDIGANBAYAN, RESPECTIVELY, CONSIDERING THAT BASED ON THE DOCUMENTS ADDUCED BY THE PEOPLE AND FOR OBVIOUS WANT OF RELIABLE EVIDENCE, ONLY ONE INFORMATION FOR ESTAFA SHOULD HAVE BEEN FILED FOR ALL THESE CASES INCLUDING THE REMAINING ONE HUNDRED FORTY THREE (143) COUNTS COVERED BY THE OSP MEMORANDUM DATED JUNE 15, 2004, ANNEX T;
 
IV. THE RESPONDENT COURT COMMITTED GRAVE ABUSE OF DISCRETION AMOUNTING TO LACK AND/OR EXCESS OF JURISDICTION IN NOT QUASHING THE INFORMATION IN CRIMINAL CASE NO. 20822 (VIOLATION OF RA NO. 3019) NOTWITHSTANDING THAT THE SAID CASE WAS ABATED BY CRIMINAL CASE NO. 20823 (ESTAFA THROUGH FALSIFICATION) BECAUSE THE VERY FACTS ALLEGED IN THE FORMER WERE ALSO THE VERY FACTS ALLEGED IN THE LATTER, THUS VIOLATING THE RULE ON DOUBLE JEOPARDY.[30]
Petitioner insists that, in finding probable cause against him for estafa through falsification of public document and violation of Section 3(e) of R.A. 3019, the Sandiganbayan committed grave abuse of discretion amounting to lack of jurisdiction, as it relied solely on the Memorandum of the investigation panel of Ombudsman Prosecutors. He posits that it behooved the anti-graft court to review the Ombudsman’s findings and scrutinize the evidence, the affidavits on record, including the transcript of stenographic notes. As gleaned from the Joint Resolution dated March 30, 2001, the initial finding of the Ombudsman Prosecutors was that there was no probable cause to charge him for the acts complained of, in the light of the Court’s ruling in the Arias case. He asserts that there was no evidence of bad faith on his part relative to the deeds of sale subject of the Informations filed against him. He insists that based on the Joint Resolution, and even the report of the Senate Blue Ribbon Committee, he had no part whatsoever in the commission of the crimes charged. The disparity of the prices of the properties in the bilateral deeds of sale, vis-à-vis the unilateral deeds of sale, do not support the finding of probable cause against him made by the investigating panel of Ombudsman Prosecutors. Petitioner asserts that there is no evidence on record that he conspired with the other accused in the commission of the crimes charged.
Petitioner further posits that the Sandiganbayan likewise committed grave abuse of its discretion when it found probable cause for the issuance of a warrant of arrest against him instead of setting the case for hearing. He insists that the anti-graft court failed to consider the other evidence on record and erred in relying solely on the evaluation and resolution of the investigating panel of Prosecutors; the fact that he posted bail bonds for his provisional liberty does not estop him from raising the issue in his Motion to Quash.
Petitioner avers that the Sandiganbayan has no jurisdiction over the crimes charged as provided in Section 4 of R.A. 8249. He insists that the AFP-RSBS is not a government-owned or controlled corporation and that he does not fall under Salary Grade 27 as required in Section 4 of the law, inasmuch as his position as AFP-RSBS President is not even included under the Compensation and Classification Act of 1989. Petitioner cites the ruling of this Court in Inding v. Sandiganbayan[31] to support his claim.
Petitioner asserts that the charges filed against him constitute only one crime of estafa through falsification of public document, in the nature of delito continuado, or a series of repetition of the same acts arising from one and the same criminal intent. He maintains that while there are 148 bilateral deeds of sale signed by him and 145 unilateral deeds of sale signed by the sellers, it cannot thereby be concluded that he is criminally liable for each deed executed. The number of transactions purportedly entered into is not a gauge in ascertaining criminal intent for the several transactions. The best test should be the presence of clear, convincing and positive evidence showing distinct criminal intent for each sales transaction, which in any event, is wanting in this case. Petitioner further alleges that for multiple transactions to be considered as separate and distinct crimes, there must be a series of acts with individual sellers such as (a) negotiations; (b) discussion of the terms of the sale; (c) finalizing the terms thereof; and (d) instruction to prepare payment and (e) actual payment. He points out that there is no
evidence that he and the other accused involved ever met with any of the sellers. While he admits the possibility that he could have signed the bilateral deeds of sale in one sitting, he insists that these documents were

notarized separately; there is even no evidence on record that the sellers of the property transacted separately with him. He points out that the corporate officers of AFP-RSBS, especially its President, do not personally deal with any of the sellers. The bare fact that he executed the bilateral deeds of sale and that the project was approved by the higher level of the management, cannot lead to the conclusion that he took part in the implementation of the transactions.
Petitioner maintains that the Sandiganbayan committed grave abuse of discretion amounting to lack of or excess of jurisdiction in filing the charges against him. He insists that the delictual acts contained in the two Informations, Criminal Case No. 28022 (for violation of R.A. 3019) and Criminal Case No. 28023 (for estafa through falsification of public document), are one and the same; to charge him under Section 3(e) of R.A. 3019 despite his indictment for estafa is to duplicate the very same charge under another name, which under the principle of double jeopardy, is proscribed. He further argues that while it is true that, in Section 3(e) of R.A. 3019, the charge against him for said crime is “in addition” to his criminal liability under the Revised Penal Code, the phrase connotes cumulativeness and simultaneity of liability.
Petitioner points out that the panel of Ombudsman Prosecutors recommended the filing of only one count of violation of Section 3(e) of R.A. No. 3019, but the Ombudsman filed five (5) counts thereof.
The issues are the following: (1) whether the Ombudsman committed grave abuse of discretion amounting to excess or lack of jurisdiction in finding probable cause against petitioner for estafa through falsification of public document and for violation of Section 3(e) of R.A. No. 3019; (2) whether the Sandiganbayan committed grave abuse of discretion amounting to excess of jurisdiction in finding probable cause against petitioner for the issuance of warrants for petitioner’s arrest without first conducting a hearing; (3) whether petitioner may be charged and prosecuted for five (5) counts of estafa thru falsification of public documents; and (4) whether petitioner may be prosecuted for both estafa through falsification of a public document and violation of Section 3(e) of R.A. No. 3019 without violating his right against double jeopardy.
The petition has no merit.
On the first issue, the rule is that as far as crimes cognizable by the Sandiganbayan are concerned, the determination of probable cause during the preliminary investigation, or reinvestigation for that matter, is a function that belongs to the Office of the Ombudsman. The Ombudsman is empowered to determine, in the exercise of his discretion, whether probable cause exists, and to charge the person believed to have committed the crime as defined by law. Whether or not the Ombudsman has correctly discharged his function, i.e., whether or not he has made a correct assessment of the evidence of probable cause in a case, is a matter that the trial court may not be compelled to pass upon.
As a rule, courts should not interfere with the Ombudsman’s investigatory power, exercised through the Ombudsman Prosecutors, and the authority to determine the presence or absence of probable cause,[32] except when the finding is tainted with grave abuse of discretion amounting to lack or excess of jurisdiction. In such case, the aggrieved party may file a petition for certiorari under Rule 65 of the Rules of Court.[33] Indeed, if the Ombudsman does not take essential facts into consideration in the determination of probable cause, there is abuse of discretion.[34] As we ruled in Mendoza-Arce v. Office of the Ombudsman (Visayas),[35] a writ of certiorari may issue in any of the following instances:
1. When necessary to afford adequate protection to the constitutional rights of the accused;
2. When necessary for the orderly administration of justice or to avoid oppression or multiplicity of actions;
3. When there is a prejudicial question which is sub judice;
4. When the acts of the officer are without or in excess of authority;
5. Where the prosecution is under an invalid law, ordinance or regulation;
6. When double jeopardy is clearly apparent;
7. Where the court has no jurisdiction over the offense;
8. Where it is a case of persecution rather than prosecution;
9. Where the charges are manifestly false and motivated by the lust for vengeance;
10. When there is clearly no prima facie case against the accused and a motion to quash on that ground has been denied.[36]
In this case, however, petitioner failed to establish that the Ombudsman committed grave abuse of discretion amounting to excess or lack of jurisdiction in finding probable cause to charge him with violation of Section 3(e) of R.A. No. 3019 and for estafa through falsification of a public document.
We are not convinced by petitioner’s claim that there is no probable cause on record for the filing of the Information against him. It bears stressing that probable cause need not be based on clear and convincing evidence of guilt, neither on evidence establishing guilt beyond reasonable doubt and definitely not on evidence establishing absolute certainty of guilt. It implies probability of guilt and requires more than bare suspicion but less than evidence which would justify conviction.[37] The Ombudsman’s finding of probable cause against petitioner is buttressed by his encompassing and comprehensive resolution, independent of the findings of the Senate Committees, as well as the documents appended to the Informations. Petitioner’s bare claim to the contrary cannot prevail over such positive findings of the Ombudsman. In fine, the Ombudsman’s finding of

probable cause prevails over petitioner’s bare allegations of grave abuse of discretion; that he was not involved in the step-by-step consummation of the anomalous transaction; and that as President he was involved only in the top level policy formulation and implementation.
It is true that in the Joint Resolution dated March 30, 2001, the Panel of Ombudsman Prosecutors found no sufficient evidence that petitioner acted in bad faith and that he merely relied on the recommendations of his subordinates. However, after a thorough investigation, another panel of Ombudsman Prosecutors found that, indeed, petitioner not merely relied on the recommendations of his subordinates but likewise perpetrated overt acts, which, along with those of the other accused, resulted in the consummation of the crimes charged. Thus, as maintained by the respondents in their Comment on the petition, petitioner signed documents, indicating his evident bad faith on the highly anomalous transactions; petitioner was aware of the forgeries and anomalies in the buying of the parcels of land, yet gave his conformity thereto, causing grave injury to its members and to the public in general. Thus, it was also found that petitioner, together with his cohorts, conspired to perpetuate clear fraud on the government and the AFP-RSBS members by giving a semblance of regularity to real estate acquisitions at bloated prices.
The fact alone that petitioner was aware, in each transaction, that the two (2) deeds of sale contain contradictory costs for every acquisition, and that he failed to rectify the same eloquently speak of his participation in the criminal malevolence. He was a member of the Investment Committee of the AFP-RSBS, which screened potential investments, that were thereafter subjected to further screening and approval by the Executive Committee of which he was also a member; hence, petitioner had full knowledge of the transactions, from the time they were conceptualized until the properties were paid for. The records show that the Tanauan, Batangas properties alone were overpriced by about 600%. Thus, petitioner consented to the crimes charged by the following overt acts:
(1) Petitioner and his co-accused prepared or caused to be prepared two (2) deeds of sale covering the same transactions: a deed of sale with the seller or sellers as the sole signatory or signatories therein (unilateral deeds); and a deed of sale with the seller or sellers and the buyer, AFP-RSBS, represented by petitioner (bilateral deeds);
(2) The considerations in the unilateral deeds of sale and the bilateral deeds of sale did not tally, notwithstanding the fact that they covered the same subject matter and transaction, with the bilateral deeds of sale bearing a bloated price; and,
(3) Of these two deeds, the unilateral deeds of sale bore the correct value given to the seller(s) as evinced, among others, by the fact that the same were the ones registered with the Registry of Deeds.
The bilateral deeds of sale could not possibly be the basis of the transfer of the properties because the supporting bilateral deeds carried dates much later than the date of issue of the titles, which were likewise not filed with the Bureau of Internal Revenue (BIR) and the Registry of Deeds of Tanauan, Batangas. The Court cannot supplant the findings of the Ombudsman that the unilateral deeds of sale were prepared by the Legal Department of AFP-RSBS, in as much as both the unilateral and bilateral deeds of sale have exactly the same print and form. The residence certificate number of petitioner which is indicated in the bilateral deeds of sale is likewise printed in the unilateral deeds. Petitioner’s fraudulent intent is further proven by the fact that the Status of Transaction Form (STF), where the subject lots were endorsed for payment, bore his signature. The unilateral deeds of sale resulted in the issuance of the titles, which were also the supporting documents enumerated in the STF. In many instances, the bilateral deeds of sale carry dates much later than the dates their corresponding titles were issued.
Petitioner was likewise unable to establish his claim that the Sandiganbayan committed grave abuse of discretion in finding probable cause for the issuance of a warrant for his arrest. His bare claim that the Sandiganbayan merely relied on the Memoranda of the Panel of Prosecutors to the Ombudsman and did not scrutinize the evidence appended thereto is not supported by the records. In the first place, the Sandiganbayan is presumed to have performed its duty as provided in the Revised Rules of Criminal Procedure, which can likewise be gleaned from its February 22, 2005 Resolution:
[1] While accused Ramiscal is correct in stating that this Court, in determining the existence of probable cause for the issuance of the warrant of arrest against the accused, had evaluated the resolution of the Office of the Ombudsman and its supporting documents, he is, however, wrong in presuming that such process failed to consider the evidence the accused adduced during preliminary investigation. It should be noted that the supporting documents submitted by the Office of the Ombudsman to this Court included, among others, the counter-affidavits submitted by the accused at the preliminary investigation. Parenthetically, there is no need, and the rules do not require this Court, to enumerate in detail what were the supporting documents it considered in determining the existence of probable cause for the issuance of the warrant of arrest because the same are matters of record that the parties can easily verify.[38]
We agree with the Sandiganbayan’s ruling that the Revised Rules of Criminal Procedure do not require cases to be set for hearing to determine probable cause for the issuance of a warrant for the arrest of the accused before any warrant may be issued. Section 6, Rule 112 mandates the judge to personally evaluate the resolution of the Prosecutor (in this case, the Ombudsman) and its supporting evidence, and if he/she finds probable cause, a warrant of arrest or commitment order may be issued within 10 days from the filing of the complaint or Information; in case the Judge doubts the existence of probable cause, the prosecutor may be ordered to present additional evidence within five (5) days from notice. The provision reads in full:
SEC. 6. When warrant of arrest may issue. — (a) By the Regional Trial Court. – Within ten (10) days from the filing of the complaint or information, the judge shall personally evaluate the resolution of the prosecutor and its supporting evidence. He may immediately dismiss the case if the evidence on record clearly fails to establish probable cause. If he finds probable cause, he shall issue a warrant of arrest, or a commitment order if the accused has already been arrested pursuant to a warrant issued by the judge who conducted the preliminary investigation
or when the complaint or information was filed pursuant to section 7 of this Rule. In case of doubt on the existence of probable cause, the judge may order the prosecutor to present additional evidence within five (5) days from notice and the issue must be resolved by the court within thirty (30) days from the filing of the complaint of information.[39]
The periods provided in the Revised Rules of Criminal Procedure are mandatory, and as such, the judge must determine the presence or absence of probable cause within such periods. The Sandiganbayan’s determination of probable cause is made ex parte and is summary in nature, not adversarial. The Judge should not be stymied and distracted from his determination of probable cause by needless motions for determination of probable cause filed by the accused.
We hold that petitioner likewise failed to establish his claim that the Sandiganbayan committed a grave abuse of authority in denying his motion to quash the Information.
First. The anti-graft court correctly ruled that it has jurisdiction over the crimes charged.
In People v. Sandiganbayan[40] and Ramiscal, Jr. v. Sandiganbayan,[41] this Court ruled that the AFP-RSBS is a government-owned and controlled corporation, and that its funds are in the nature of public funds. Under Section 4(a)(1)(g) of R.A. No. 8249, the Sandiganbayan has exclusive jurisdiction over offenses committed by presidents, directors, trustees or
managers of government owned or controlled corporations.[42] Under Section 4(b) of R.A. No. 8249, the Sandiganbayan has exclusive jurisdiction over offenses committed by public officers and employees in relation to their office, whether simple or complexed with other crimes.[43]
As gleaned from the material averments of the Information in Criminal Case No. 28023, the charge against petitioner is estafa through falsification of public document in the performance of his duties and in relation to his position as president of the AFP-RSBS.
Second. On petitioner’s claim that he should be charged with only one count of estafa through falsification of public document instead of five (5) charges, respondents counter that the criminal acts petitioner and his co-accused are not continuous crimes. Respondents argue that a continuous crime may exist only if there is only a single criminal intent and the commission of diverse acts is merely a partial execution of said single criminal resolution. In the instant cases, the requirement of singularity of criminal intent does not exist because there are as many criminal intents as there are anomalous transactions, causing grave damage to the government at each instance. There was no need for the accused to perform another or other delictual acts to consummate the felony. Respondents maintain that petitioner was motivated by separate intents as he signed each document, all of which are criminal in character; hence, it is but proper that corresponding Informations be filed against him for each and every act of falsification committed.
The Sandiganbayan, for its part, sustained the contention of respondents and ruled that the determination of (a) the charge/s and the person/s against whom the charge is filed are addressed to the sound discretion of the Prosecutors based on the facts before them; and (b) the crimes committed by petitioner are separate, and not a single crime consisting of series of acts arising from a single criminal resolution. Thus:
In the first place, the question of the number of criminal charges that must be instituted against a criminal respondent (whether one count or multiple counts of the same offense) is one addressed to the sound discretion of the prosecution service. It is enough, as this Court has already ruled, that the informations filed in these cases are based on facts establishing probable cause for the offenses charged. This Court will not compel the Office of the Ombudsman to file only one information for Estafa through Falsification of Public Documents when its preliminary investigation established the commission of several counts thereof as such action on the part of this Court would constitute undue interference with the Office of the Ombudsman’s control over the prosecution of these cases.
In the second place, this Court is not persuaded that what is involved in these cases is a continuous crime, that is to say, a single crime consisting of a series of acts arising from a single criminal resolution or intent not susceptible of division, with each act in that series being merely the partial execution of a single delict. On the contrary, the Court is of the view that what is involved herein are several completed and distinct purported criminal acts which should be prosecuted as multiple counts of the same type of offense. Thus, as correctly perceived by the prosecution, there are as many alleged offenses as there are alleged anomalous transactions involved in these cases.[44]
When required to comment on the motion of petitioner and his co- accused for a consolidation of the charges filed against them before the Sandiganbayan, the Special Prosecutor objected thereto, insisting that there were as many crimes committed by the accused as there were sales contracts forged by them.
Indeed, the determination of what charges to file and who are to be charged are matters addressed to the discretion of the Ombudsman, including the matter of whether the crime perpetrated by petitioner and his co-accused under the Informations pending in the Divisions of the Sandiganbayan constitute delito continuado or classified as concurso de
delitos;
or involve separate crimes under the category of concurso real delito involve factual issues.[45] Such factual issues should be resolved after trial on the merits, and not in this case. The Court is being tasked to determine whether the several sales contracts executed by petitioner and his co-accused were set afoot or triggered by a single impulse and operated by an uninterrupted force however long a time it may occupy, which, however, is a matter best left to the determination of the trial court, in this case, the Sandiganbayan.[46]
Thus, the present petition for certiorari under Rule 65 of the Revised Rules of Court is hardly the appropriate remedy and forum for petitioner to ventilate the issues he has raised, as only jurisdictional issues can be resolved therein. As eloquently expressed by Justice Florenz D. Regalado, speaking for this Court in Iligan v. Court of Appeals:[47]
If, as petitioners seem to apprehend, the adverse actions of two lower courts could create a scenario of multiple prosecutions for the same offense or, more candidly expressed, of double jeopardy, then this is neither the procedural stage nor the proper occasion to pass upon that possibility. For, squarely imputable to petitioners is the evident lack of factual basis for and a grossly defective presentation of that issue for this Court to rule thereon in this proceeding and at this time.[48]
It must be stressed that our disposition of the matters in the present recourse will not foreclose petitioner’s right to ventilate the same in the Sandiganbayan, for as declared in Iligan:
However, this observation would not foreclose relief to petitioners if at the trial of this case the evidence presented and the developments therein suffice to establish the supervening fact that indeed there could possibly be a breach of the rule of double jeopardy. Under Section 8 of Rule 117, they can still hereafter raise that defense of non bis in idem, provided that they can lay the evidentiary bases therefor and refute from the standpoint of substantive penal law what was earlier said on the nature and the non-identity of the several crimes of Estafa involved which, to repeat, we pronounced purely on the bases of existing records sans the benefit of any evidentiary fact since none has been adduced.[49]
On the last issue, we agree with the contention of respondents that the crimes committed by public officers and employees in relation to their offices defined and penalized under the Anti-Graft Law do not exclude prosecution for felonies defined and penalized under the Revised Penal Code and vice versa. Section 3 of R.A. No. 3019 reads:
Section 3. Corrupt practices of public officers.–In addition to acts or omissions of public officers already penalized by existing law, the following shall constitute corrupt practices of any public officer and are hereby declared to be unlawful: x x x (Emphasis supplied)
It is clear then that one may be charged of violation of R.A. No. 3019 in addition to a felony under the Revised Penal Code for the same delictual act, that is, either concurrently or subsequent to being charged with a felony under the Code.
IN LIGHT OF ALL THE FOREGOING, the petition is DENIED. Costs against the petitioner.
SO ORDERED.
ROMEO J. CALLEJO, SR.
Associate Justice
  
              

Saturday, February 22, 2014

Rule 130: Witness


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C. TESTIMONIAL EVIDENCE

1. Qualification of Witnesses

Section 20. Witnesses; their qualifications. — Except as provided in the next succeeding section, all persons who can perceive, and perceiving, can make their known perception to others, may be witnesses.

Religious or political belief, interest in the outcome of the case, or conviction of a crime unless otherwise provided by law, shall not be ground for disqualification. (18a)

Section 21. Disqualification by reason of mental incapacity or immaturity. — The following persons cannot be witnesses:


(a) Those whose mental condition, at the time of their production for examination, is such that they are incapable of intelligently making known their perception to others;

(b) Children whose mental maturity is such as to render them incapable of perceiving the facts respecting which they are examined and of relating them truthfully. (19a)

Section 22. Disqualification by reason of marriage. — During their marriage, neither the husband nor the wife may testify for or against the other without the consent of the affected spouse, except in a civil case by one against the other, or in a criminal case for a crime committed by one against the other or the latter's direct descendants or ascendants. (20a)

Section 23. Disqualification by reason of death or insanity of adverse party. — Parties or assignor of parties to a case, or persons in whose behalf a case is prosecuted, against an executor or administrator or other representative of a deceased person, or against a person of unsound mind, upon a claim or demand against the estate of such deceased person or against such person of unsound mind, cannot testify as to any matter of fact occurring before the death of such deceased person or before such person became of unsound mind. (20a)

Section 24. Disqualification by reason of privileged communication. — The following persons cannot testify as to matters learned in confidence in the following cases:


(a) The husband or the wife, during or after the marriage, cannot be examined without the consent of the other as to any communication received in confidence by one from the other during the marriage except in a civil case by one against the other, or in a criminal case for a crime committed by one against the other or the latter's direct descendants or ascendants;

(b) An attorney cannot, without the consent of his client, be examined as to any communication made by the client to him, or his advice given thereon in the course of, or with a view to, professional employment, nor can an attorney's secretary, stenographer, or clerk be examined, without the consent of the client and his employer, concerning any fact the knowledge of which has been acquired in such capacity;

(c) A person authorized to practice medicine, surgery or obstetrics cannot in a civil case, without the consent of the patient, be examined as to any advice or treatment given by him or any information which he may have acquired in attending such patient in a professional capacity, which information was necessary to enable him to act in capacity, and which would blacken the reputation of the patient;

(d) A minister or priest cannot, without the consent of the person making the confession, be examined as to any confession made to or any advice given by him in his professional character in the course of discipline enjoined by the church to which the minister or priest belongs;

(e) A public officer cannot be examined during his term of office or afterwards, as to communications made to him in official confidence, when the court finds that the public interest would suffer by the disclosure. (21a)

2. Testimonial Privilege

Section 25. Parental and filial privilege. — No person may be compelled to testify against his parents, other direct ascendants, children or other direct descendants. (20a)


3. Admissions and Confessions

Section 26. Admission of a party. — The act, declaration or omission of a party as to a relevant fact may be given in evidence against him. (22)

Section 27. Offer of compromise not admissible. — In civil cases, an offer of compromise is not an admission of any liability, and is not admissible in evidence against the offeror.

In criminal cases, except those involving quasi-offenses (criminal negligence) or those allowed by law to be compromised, an offer of compromised by the accused may be received in evidence as an implied admission of guilt.

A plea of guilty later withdrawn, or an unaccepted offer of a plea of guilty to lesser offense, is not admissible in evidence against the accused who made the plea or offer.

An offer to pay or the payment of medical, hospital or other expenses occasioned by an injury is not admissible in evidence as proof of civil or criminal liability for the injury. (24a)

Section 28. Admission by third party. — The rights of a party cannot be prejudiced by an act, declaration, or omission of another, except as hereinafter provided. (25a)

Section 29. Admission by co-partner or agent. — The act or declaration of a partner or agent of the party within the scope of his authority and during the existence of the partnership or agency, may be given in evidence against such party after the partnership or agency is shown by evidence other than such act or declaration. The same rule applies to the act or declaration of a joint owner, joint debtor, or other person jointly interested with the party. (26a)

Section 30. Admission by conspirator. — The act or declaration of a conspirator relating to the conspiracy and during its existence, may be given in evidence against the co-conspirator after the conspiracy is shown by evidence other than such act of declaration. (27)

Section 31. Admission by privies. — Where one derives title to property from another, the act, declaration, or omission of the latter, while holding the title, in relation to the property, is evidence against the former. (28)

Section 32. Admission by silence. — An act or declaration made in the presence and within the hearing or observation of a party who does or says nothing when the act or declaration is such as naturally to call for action or comment if not true, and when proper and possible for him to do so, may be given in evidence against him. (23a)

Section 33. Confession. — The declaration of an accused acknowledging his guilt of the offense charged, or of any offense necessarily included therein, may be given in evidence against him. (29a)
4. Previous Conduct as Evidence
Section 34. Similar acts as evidence. — Evidence that one did or did not do a certain thing at one time is not admissible to prove that he did or did not do the same or similar thing at another time; but it may be received to prove a specific intent or knowledge; identity, plan, system, scheme, habit, custom or usage, and the like. (48a)

Section 35. Unaccepted offer. — An offer in writing to pay a particular sum of money or to deliver a written instrument or specific personal property is, if rejected without valid cause, equivalent to the actual production and tender of the money, instrument, or property. (49a)


5. Testimonial Knowledge
Section 36. Testimony generally confined to personal knowledge; hearsay excluded. — A witness can testify only to those facts which he knows of his personal knowledge; that is, which are derived from his own perception, except as otherwise provided in these rules. (30a)


6. Exceptions To The Hearsay Rule
Section 37. Dying declaration. — The declaration of a dying person, made under
the consciousness of an impending death, may be received in any case wherein his death is the subject of inquiry, as evidence of the cause and surrounding circumstances of such death. (31a)

Section 38. Declaration against interest. — The declaration made by a person deceased, or unable to testify, against the interest of the declarant, if the fact is asserted in the declaration was at the time it was made so far contrary to declarant's own interest, that a reasonable man in his position would not have made the declaration unless he believed it to be true, may be received in evidence against himself or his successors in interest and against third persons. (32a)

Section 39. Act or declaration about pedigree. — The act or declaration of a person deceased, or unable to testify, in respect to the pedigree of another person related to him by birth or marriage, may be received in evidence where it occurred before the controversy, and the relationship between the two persons is shown by evidence other than such act or declaration. The word "pedigree" includes relationship, family genealogy, birth, marriage, death, the dates when and the places where these fast occurred, and the names of the relatives. It embraces also facts of family history intimately connected with pedigree. (33a)

Section 40. Family reputation or tradition regarding pedigree. — The reputation or tradition existing in a family previous to the controversy, in respect to the pedigree of any one of its members, may be received in evidence if the witness testifying thereon be also a member of the family, either by consanguinity or affinity. Entries in family bibles or other family books or charts, engravings on rings, family portraits and the like, may be received as evidence of pedigree. (34a)

Section 41. Common reputation. — Common reputation existing previous to the controversy, respecting facts of public or general interest more than thirty years old, or respecting marriage or moral character, may be given in evidence. Monuments and inscriptions in public places may be received as evidence of common reputation. (35)

Section 42. Part of res gestae. — Statements made by a person while a starting occurrence is taking place or immediately prior or subsequent thereto with respect to the circumstances thereof, may be given in evidence as part of res gestae. So, also, statements accompanying an equivocal act material to the issue, and giving it a legal significance, may be received as part of the res gestae. (36a)

Section 43. Entries in the course of business. — Entries made at, or near the time of transactions to which they refer, by a person deceased, or unable to testify, who was in a position to know the facts therein stated, may be received as prima facie evidence, if such person made the entries in his professional capacity or in the performance of duty and in the ordinary or regular course of business or duty. (37a)

Section 44. Entries in official records. — Entries in official records made in the performance of his duty by a public officer of the Philippines, or by a person in the performance of a duty specially enjoined by law, areprima facie evidence of the facts therein stated. (38)

Section 45. Commercial lists and the like. — Evidence of statements of matters of interest to persons engaged in an occupation contained in a list, register, periodical, or other published compilation is admissible as tending to prove the truth of any relevant matter so stated if that compilation is published for use by persons engaged in that occupation and is generally used and relied upon by them therein. (39)

Section 46. Learned treatises. — A published treatise, periodical or pamphlet on a subject of history, law, science, or art is admissible as tending to prove the truth of a matter stated therein if the court takes judicial notice, or a witness expert in the subject testifies, that the writer of the statement in the treatise, periodical or pamphlet is recognized in his profession or calling as expert in the subject. (40a)

Section 47. Testimony or deposition at a former proceeding. — The testimony or deposition of a witness deceased or unable to testify, given in a former case or proceeding, judicial or administrative, involving the same parties and subject matter, may be given in evidence against the adverse party who had the opportunity to cross-examine him. (41a)


7. Opinion Rule

Section 48. General rule. — The opinion of witness is not admissible, except as indicated in the following sections. (42)

Section 49. Opinion of expert witness. — The opinion of a witness on a matter requiring special knowledge, skill, experience or training which he shown to posses, may be received in evidence. (43a)

Section 50. Opinion of ordinary witnesses. — The opinion of a witness for which proper basis is given, may be received in evidence regarding —


(a) the identity of a person about whom he has adequate knowledge;
(b) A handwriting with which he has sufficient familiarity; and
(c) The mental sanity of a person with whom he is sufficiently acquainted.
The witness may also testify on his impressions of the emotion, behavior, condition or appearance of a person. (44a)


8. Character Evidence

Section 51. Character evidence not generally admissible; exceptions: —


(a) In Criminal Cases:
(1) The accused may prove his good moral character which is pertinent to the moral trait involved in the offense charged.
(2) Unless in rebuttal, the prosecution may not prove his bad moral character which is pertinent to the moral trait involved in the offense charged.
(3) The good or bad moral character of the offended party may be proved if it tends to establish in any reasonable degree the probability or improbability of the offense charged.

(b) In Civil Cases:
Evidence of the moral character of a party in civil case is admissible only when pertinent to the issue of character involved in the case.

(c) In the case provided for in Rule 132, Section 14, (46a, 47a)

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